There are a myriad questions that we might ask with regard to man’s salvation, and the passion and death of Christ. One is, did Jesus suffer the wrath of God on the cross for all of the sins of all men? Another, did He suffer wrath for all of the sins for some men? Finally, did Jesus die only for some sins of all men? How we answer is telling.
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If we answer affirmatively to the first, then Jesus bore the wrath for even unbelievers, and that answer begs, ‘to what end?’ Doesn’t the Bible state that the unbeliever will suffer the wrath of God as a consequence of his own sin? Is the blood of Christ so thinly spread and the wrath of God so capriciously spent as to exact from His Son a cry of horror and forsakenness tied to a meaningless result? I think not.
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If we affirm that Jesus suffered the wrath of God to pay the price of all sin for some men, then we find an economy, efficiency and efficacy within God’s plan; His love for His Son only demanded a payment and punishment sufficient to achieve its end; which was to save God’s elect. To this, I affirm.
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Finally, if Jesus died and suffered God’s wrath only for only some of the sins of all men, then all is lost for His sacrifice was not sufficient for any, and the punishment He suffered was without merit.
The good news associated with rejection of this latter statement is that those who have lived without assurance, but yet believed, might know assurance Today. Praise God that Jesus died for all of the sins of God’s elect.